ISC Biology Semester-1 Specimen Paper Solved Class -12

ISC Biology Semester-1 Specimen Paper Solved 2022 Class-12 for practice. Step by step solutions of ISC Class-12 specimen model sample paper . During solutions of semester-1 Biology specimen paper we explain with figure , graph, table whenever necessary so that student can achieve their goal in next upcoming exam of council. Visit official website CISCE for detail information about ISC Board Class-12.

.ISC Biology Semester-1 Specimen Paper Solved 2022 Class-12

Board	ISC
Class	12th (XII)
Subject	Biology
Topic	Semester-1 ISC Specimen Paper Solved
Syllabus	on bifurcated syllabus (after reduction)
session	2021-22
Question Type	MCQ/ Objective (as prescribe by council)
Total question	Total=50
Max mark	70

ISC Biology Semester-1 Specimen Paper Solved 2022 Class-12

Question 1

Which of the following steps in transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase?
(a) Initiation
(b) Elongation
(c) Termination
(d) All of the above

Answer-

(d) All of the above

Explanation

There is single DNA-dependent RNA polymerase that catalyses transcription of all types of RNA in bacteria. RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription (Initiation). It uses nucleoside triphosphates as substrate and polymerises in a template dependent fashion following the rule of complementarity.

Question 2

In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked together by
(a) glycosidic bonds
(b) phosphodiester bonds
(c) peptide bonds
(d) hydrogen bonds

Answer-

(b) phosphodiester bonds

explanation

Two nucleotides are linked through 3 $\to$ 5 phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide. More nucleotides are joined in a similar manner to form a polynucleotide chain.

Question 3

If the sequence of nitrogen bases of the coding strand of DNA in a transcription unit
is: 5’ – ATGAATG – 3’, the sequence of bases in its RNA transcript would be:
(a) 5’ – AUG A AUG – 3’
(b) 5’ – UACUU AC – 3’
(c) 5’ – CAUUCAU – 3’
(d) 5’ – GUAAGUA – 3’

Answer-

Correct option is (a) 5-AUGAAUG-3

Explanation

Translation is the process of conversion of DNA into RNA.

It includes coding and template strands of DNA in which template strand forms the RNA and follows the base pairing rule except for uracil in place of thymine in RNA strand.

Question 4

In E. coli the lac operon gets switched on when
(a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor
(b) repressor binds to operator
(c) RNA polymerase binds to the operator
(d) lactose is present and it binds to RNA polymerase

Answer-

Correct option is (a) lactose is present and it binds to the repressor

explanation

The repressor protein binds to the operator region of the operon and prevents RNA polymerase from transcribing the operon. In the presence of an inducer, such as lactose or allolactose,

Question 5

The amino acid attaches to the tRNA at its

(a) 5’- end
(b) 3’ – end
(c) anticodon site
(d) DHU loop

Answer-

Correct option is (b) 3-end

Explanation

tRNA has anticodon loop that has bases complementary to the code, it also has an amino acid acceptor end by which it binds to amino acids. The site lies at the 3′ end opposite the anticodon in tRNAs are specific for each amino acid

Question 6

Which of the following provides the most satisfactory evidence in the favour of the organic
evolution?
(a) Fossils
(b) Neoteny
(c) Connecting links
(d) None of above

Answer-

Correct option is (a) Fossil

Explanation

Fossils are the preserved remains or traces of animals, plants, and other organisms from the remote past. Thus, they provides evidence of evolution.

Question 7

Which era is dubbed as the age of prokaryotic microbes?
(a) Phanerozoic
(b) Proterozoic
(c) Precambrian
(d) Archeozoic

Answer-

Correct option is (c) Precambrian

Explanation

The geological time scale of life on earth is divided into four major units: Eons, Eras, Periods, and Epochs.

Question 8

The presence of gill slits in the embryos of all vertebrates supports the theory of:
(a) Recapitulation
(b) Organic evolution
(c) Metamorphosis
(d) Biogenesis

Answer–

Correct option is (a) Recapitulation

Explanation

Recapitulation theory says that embryological development repeats path of evolution. Gill slits are present in the fishes and the aquatic amphibians and from them gradually the reptiles and mammals have evolved.

Question 9

In Miller’s experiment, the gaseous mixture in the flask contained:

(a) Methane, ammonia, carbon dioxide and helium
(b) Carbon dioxide, hydrogen, water vapour and ammonia
(c) Ammonia, methane, hydrogen and water vapour
(d) Hydrogen, ammonia and methane and helium

Answer-

Correct option is (a) Methane, ammonia, carbon dioxide and helium

Explanation

Miller and Urey provided first proof for chemical synthesis of proteins by amino acids. They simulated the primitive earth conditions as proposed by Oparin and synthesized simple organic compounds (amino acids, fatty acids sugars etc) from a mixture of methane, hydrogen, water vapour and ammonia.

Question 10

Neo–Darwinism is:
(a) Natural selection theory
(b) Modern mutation theory
(c) Modern synthetic theory
(d) Population theory

Answer-

Correct option is (c) Modern synthetic theory

Explanation

Neo-Darwinism is known as a modern synthetic theory. It is a combined form of the evolutionary theory of natural selection and modern population genetics.

Question 11

Trichoderma, free living fungi, present in root ecosystem are useful as:
(a) Biofertilizer
(b) Biopesticides
(c) Methanogens
(d) Vector for genetic engineering

Answer-

Correct option is (b) Biopesticides

Explanation

$T r i c h o d e r m a$ is a genus of fungi. It is used to treat seeds and soils to eliminate pathogens. These species have long been recognized as biological agents to control plant diseases.

Question 12

During spermatogenesis, the second maturation division results in the formation of:
(a) 8 haploid spermatids
(b) 2 diploid spermatids
(c) 4 haploid spermatids
(d) 16 haploid spermatids

Answer

Correct option is (c) 4 haploid spermatids

Explanation

Meiosis begins with a cell called a primary spermatocyte. At the end of the first meiotic division, a haploid cell is produced called a secondary spermatocyte. This haploid cell must go through another meiotic cell division. The cell produced at the end of meiosis is called a spermatid. When it reaches the lumen of the tubule and grows a flagellum (or “tail”), it is called a sperm cell. Four sperm result from each primary spermatocyte that goes through meiosis

Question 13

What is the effect of high pH on sperm?
(a) High activity leading to early death
(b) Sluggish, longer life
(c) High activity, longer life
(d) No effect

Answer

Correct option is (c) High activity, longer life

Explanation

Since pH affects the metabolic rate and the motility of sperm, and consequently alters the vitality of sperm

Question 14

If temperature is reduced to 0°C, what will happen to spermatozoa?
(a) All will die
(b) No change
(c) Shedding of tail
(d) Temporary inactivation

Answer

Correct option is (d) Temporary inactivation

Explanation

Sperms depend on catabolism of fructose for their energy demand. At a temperature of zero degree celsius, the process of respiration stops because respiration is an enzymatic process. This will temporarily inactivate the sperms.

Question 15

Select the incorrect statement about gametes:
(a) Sperm begin developing before puberty
(b) Sperm do not develop successfully at 37°C
(c) Sperm are made in the seminiferous tubules
(d) Sperm are capable of movement

Answer

Correct option is (a) Sperm begin developing before puberty

Explanation

after attaning puberty sperm bigin to develop

Question 16

In industries, citric acid is obtained from which of the following the microbe?
(a) Aspergillus niger
(b) Clostridium botulinum
(c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(d) Trichoderma polysporum

Answer

Correct option is (a) Aspergillus niger

Explanation

Citric acid is the most important organic acid produced in tonnage and is extensively used in food and pharmaceutical industries. It is produced mainly by submerged fermentation using Aspergillus niger or Candida sp. from different sources of carbohydrates, such as molasses and starch based media

Question 17

Statins are used as:

(a) Clot busters
(b) Clearing of fruit juices
(c) Blood cholesterol lowering agents
(d) Meat tenderisers

Answer

Correct option is (c) Blood cholesterol lowering agents

Question 18

Biological name of the common yeast used in baking industry is:
(a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(b) Clostridium butylicum
(c) Trichoderma polysporum
(d) Propionibacterium shermanii

Answer

Correct option is (a) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Explanation

Baker’s yeast is the common name for the strains of yeast commonly used in baking bread and other bakery products, serving as a leavening agent which causes the bread to rise (expand and become lighter and softer) by converting the fermentable sugars present in the dough into carbon dioxide and ethanol. Baker’s yeast is of the species Saccharomyces cerevisiae, and is the same species (but a different strain) as the kind commonly used in alcoholic fermentation, which is called brewer’s yeast. Baker’s yeast is also a single-cell microorganism found on and around the human body.

Question 19

Which of the following microbes is used in the production of Swiss cheese?
(a) Aspergillus niger
(b) Mucor
(c) Monascus purpureus
(d) Penicillium notatum

Answer

Correct option is ……………….

Explanation

Swiss cheese is formed by the bacterium Propionibacterium sharmanii.

Question 20

Which of the following can be used as biofertilizer?
(a) Anabaena
(b) Nostoc
(c) Oscillatoria
(d) All the above

Answer

Correct option is .(d) All the above.

Explanation

Blue-Green Algae are a type of photosynthetic bacteria consisting either of single cells or colonies which is also known as the Cyanobacteria. Cyanobacteria contain only one type of chlorophyll, Chlorophyll a, a green pigment. In addition, they also contain pigments such as carotenoids, phycobilin.

Examples of cyanobacteria: Nostoc, Oscillatoria, Spirulina, Microcystis, Anabaena.

Question 21

The abbreviation ‘HIV’ stands for:
(a) Human immune virus
(b) Hepatitis virus
(c) Human Immuno deficiency virus
(d) Highly infectious virus

Answer

Correct option is .(c) Human Immuno deficiency virus

Question 22

The abbreviation snRNA stands for:
(a) Small nuclear RNA
(b) Small nucleus and RNA
(c) Small nucleolar RNA
(d) Sub-nuclear RNA

Answer

Correct option is (a) Small nuclear RNA

Question 23

The fact that DNA is the genetic material was proved by:
(a) Meselson and Stahl
(b) Sutton and Boveri
(c) Watson and Crick
(d) Hershey and Chase

Answer

Correct option is (d) Hershey and Chase

Question 24

The term biodiversity was coined by:
(a) Wilson
(b) R Mishra
(c) Rio de Janeiro
(d) Oparin

Answer

Correct option is ……………

Explanation

The term biodiversity was coined by Walter G. Rosen in the year 1986.

Question 25

Bt cotton is a/an ______ resistant variety of cotton.
(a) Insecticide
(b) Pest
(c) Insect
(d) Disease

Answer

Correct option is (b) Pest

Explanation

Question 26

Bt cotton has been produced by transferring genes of _____ into the cotton plant.
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Pseudomonas putida
(c) Bacillus tumorigenes
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis

Answer

Correct option is (d) Bacillus thuringiensis

Explanation

Bt cotton has been genetically modified by the insertion of one or more genes from a common soil bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis. These genes encode for the production of insecticidal proteins, and thus, genetically transformed plants produce one or more toxins as they grow

Question 27

The enzyme pectinase is obtained from:
(a) Bacillus aureus
(b) Bacillus cereus
(c) Trichoderma
(d) Claviceps

Answer

Correct option is……….

Explanation

Pectinases can be extracted from fungi such as Aspergillus niger. The fungus produces these enzymes to break down the middle lamella in plants so that it can extract nutrients from the plant tissues and insert fungal hyphae.

Question 28

The enzyme ___ is used to remove the turbidity and clear the fruit juices:
(a) Zymase
(b) Pectinase
(c) Amylase
(d) Papain

Answer

Correct option is.(b) Pectinase

Explanation

In industrial fruit juice processing, pectinolytic enzymes are used to remove such turbidity . Enzymes in this group that act on plant polysaccharides cause the aggregation of cloud particles and the clarification of fruit juices.

Question 29

Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a ___ process:
(a) Chemical
(b) biological
(c) mechanical
(d) physical

Answer

Correct option is.(b) biological

Explanation

Secondary wastewater treatment processes use microorganisms to biologically remove contaminants from wastewater. Secondary biological processes can be aerobic or anaerobic, each process utilizing a different type of bacterial community. Coupled anaerobic–aerobic processes may also be employed under certain circumstances

Question 30

Corpus luteum has ____ function:
(a) Reproductive
(b) Endocrine
(c) Excretory
(d) All the above

Answer

Correct option is.(b) Endocrine

Explanation

The corpus luteum (CL) is a dynamic endocrine gland within the ovary that plays an integral role in regulation of the menstrual cycle and early pregnancy. The CL forms from cells of the ovarian follicle wall during ovulation. The precise origin of the cells that comprise the CL remains controversial

Question 31

The hormone _(A)__, released by __(B)__ helps in the release of milk from the mammary
glands
(a) Oxytocin, placenta
(b) Prolactin, posterior pituitary
(c) Prolactin, ovary
(d) Oxytocin, posterior pituitary

Answer

Correct option is.(b) Prolactin, posterior pituitary

Explanation

Prolactin (PRL) released from lactotrophs of the anterior pituitary gland in response to the suckling by the offspring is the major hormonal signal responsible for stimulation of milk synthesis in the mammary glands

Question 32

If the mother is homozygous for blood group B, and the father is heterozygous for blood group A, their offspring will be of ___ and ___ blood groups:
(a) A, B
(b) O, B
(c) B, AB
(d) A, AB

Answer

Correct option is.(c) B, AB

Explanation

if father is heterozygous (I $^{A}$ I $^{O}$ ”) and mother is homozygous (I $^{B}$ I $^{B}$ ); the total different types of possible combinations by three alleles (I $^{A}$ , I $^{B}$ and I $^{O}$ ) will be (I $^{A}$ I $^{B}$ and I $^{B}$ I $^{O}$ ). But if mother is heterozygous (I $^{B}$ I $^{O}$ ) and father is homozygous (I $^{A}$ I $^{A}$ ); the total different types of possible combinations by three alleles (I $^{A}$ , I $^{B}$ and I $^{O}$ ) will be (I $^{A}$ I $^{B}$ and I $^{B}$ I $^{O}$ ).

Question 33

The vermiform appendix is ____ organ in humans.
(a) A homologous
(b) An analogous
(c) A vestigial
(d) An over-specialised

Answer

Correct option is. (c) A vestigial

Explanation

Question 34

The sperm of Drosophila contains _____ number of chromosomes:
(a) 4
(b) 46
(c) 23
(d) 8

Answer

Correct option is. (a) 4

Explanation

In Drosophila melanogaster there are 4 homologous pairs of chromosomes: 2 pairs of large autosomes, ( one slightly smaller than the other pair), 1 pair of very small autosomes, and a pair of sex chromosomes ( X, Y ).

Question 35

Which of the following is not correct regarding vasectomy?
(a) It is irreversible
(b) It causes loss of secondary sexual characters in males
(c) It leads to absence of sperm in the semen
(d) This process involves bilateral cutting and ligating of the sperm ducts

Answer

Correct option is. (d) This process involves bilateral cutting and ligating of the sperm ducts

Explanation

vasectomy

Question 36.

Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Down’s syndrome is caused due to trisomy of 22nd chromosome
(b) Haemophilia is an autosomal recessive disorder
(c) The life on the Earth appeared about 3.5 million years ago
(d) In angiosperms, the endosperm is triploid

Answer

Correct option is. (d) In angiosperms, the endosperm is triploid

Explanation

Most angiosperms have a Polygonum-type embryo sac with two polar nuclei and produce a triploid (3n) endosperm as in Arabidopsis. In a few species, more than two polar nuclei are present in the central cell leading to the formation of endosperm with a ploidy higher than 3n

Question 37

Identify the correct match from the columns and mark the correct option:
……………
(a) A-q-iv, B-p-iii, C-r-ii, D-s-i
(b) A-s-iv, B-p-iii, C-q-ii, D-r-i
(c) A-q-i, B-r-ii, C-s-iii, D-p-iv
(d) A-q-iv, B-r-ii, C-p-i, D-s-iii

Answer

Correct option is. ……

Explanation

Question 38

Match Column – I with Column – II and select the correct option from the choices given below:

………………….
Matching codes:
(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-43
(d) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

Answer

Correct option is. ……

Explanation

Question 39

Which of the following is odd one out with reference to evolution?
(a) Flippers of whale
(b) Wings of pigeon
(c) Forelimbs of rabbit
(d) Wings of butterfly

Answer

Correct option is.(d) Wings of butterfly

Explanation

Wings of butterfly is not originate from pectoral girdle as a) Flippers of whale (b) Wings of pigeon and (c) Forelimbs of rabbit so they are common

Question 40

Which of the following is odd one out with reference to geological time scale?
(a) Proterozoic
(b) Mesozoic
(c) Jurassic
(d) Coenozoic

Answer

Correct option is.(c) Jurassic

Explanation

other than Jurassic rest are geological ERA

Question 41 to 50 available soon

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2 thoughts on “ISC Biology Semester-1 Specimen Paper Solved Class -12”

Akshay

December 3, 2021 at 12:07 pm

Hello,it is very helpful.

But , when will you post Q.41 to q.50

Today is our biology exam at 2: 00 a.m. What will we do afterwards??????
- PANDEY TUTORIAL
  
  January 28, 2022 at 1:02 pm
  
  please focus on sem-2

.ISC Biology Semester-1 Specimen Paper Solved 2022 Class-12

ISC Biology Semester-1 Specimen Paper Solved 2022 Class-12

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