ISC MCQ Type Questions Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology
Board | ISC |
Class | 12th (XII) |
Subject | Maths |
Chapter Name |
Reproductive Health |
Syllabus | on bifurcated syllabus (after reduction) |
bifurcated pattern |
Semester-1 |
Session | 2021-22 |
Topic | MCQ / Objective Type Question |
ISC Reproductive Health Class 12 Biology MCQ Type Questions
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins .
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilisation.
Answer:- (a) suppression of gonadotropins
Question 3.
Amniocentesis is a process to:
(a) Determine any disease ¡n the heart
(b) Know about diseases of brain
(c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
(d) All of these
Answer:- (c) Determine any hereditary disease in the embryo
Question 4
Which of the following is ART?
(a) IUDs
(b) GIFT
(c) ZIFT
(d) Both (b) & (c)
Answer:-(d) Both (b) & (c)
Question 5
Which among these is not a natural method of birth control?
(a) Coitus intrruptus
(b) Periodic abstinence
(c) Vasectomy
(d) Lactational amenorrhoea
Answer: (b) Periodic abstinence
Question 6.
The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
(a) who cannot produce an ovum
(b) who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
(c) who cannot provide suitable environment for fertilisation
(d) all of these
Answer:-(a) who cannot produce an ovum
Question 7.
Which of these is cause by a retrovirus
(a) Gonorrhoea
(b) AIDS
(c) Trichomoniasis
(d) Syphillis
Answer-(b) AIDS
Question 8
Which method can be used for women that cannot produce ovum but can provide suitable environment ?
(a) IUD
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) ICSI
Answer:-(b) GIFT
Question 9.
Which of these can be used to cure infertility in couples where male partner has very low sperm count ?
(a) IUD
(b) GIFT
(c) IUI
(d) None of these
Answer:-(c) IUI
Question 10.
The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called
(a) GIFT
(b) ZIFT
(c) ICSI
(d) ET
Answer:-(c) ICSI
Question 11.
What is correct about the test-tube baby :
(a) Fertilization in female’s genital tract and growth in test tube
(b) Rearing of premature born baby in an incubator
(c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
(d) Both fertilization and development are done outside the female genital tract
Answer: (c) Fertilization outside and gestation inside mother’s womb or uterus
Question 12.
Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
(a) cause rapid increase in growth rate
(b) result in decline in growth rate
(c) not cause significant change in growth rate
(d) result in an explosive population.
Answer:-(b) result in decline in growth rate
Question 13.
Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive due to the
(a) suppression of gonadotropins
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins .
(c) suppression of gametic transport
(d) suppression of fertilisation.
Answer:-(a) suppression of gonadotropins
Question 14
A national level approach to build up a reproductively healthy society was taken up in our country in
(a) 1950s
(b) 1960s
(c) 1980s
(d) 1990s
Answer:-(a) 1950s
Question 15.
Progesteron in the contraceptive pill:
(a) Prevents ovulation
(b) Inhibits estrogen
(c) Checks attachment of zygote to endometrium
(d) All the above
Answer: (a) Prevents ovulation
Question 16.
Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within,
(a) 72 hrs of coitus
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(d) 72 hrs of implantation.
Answer:-(a) 72 hrs of coitus
Question 17.
From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs.
(a) Syphilis
(b) AIDS
(c) Gonorrhea
(d) Genital warts
Answer:-(b) AIDS
Question 18.
Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons.
(a) These are effective barriers for insemination.
(b) They do not interfere with coital act.
(c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs.
(d) All of the above
Answer:-(d) All of the above
Question 19.
The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive method is
(a) ovariectomy
(b) hysterectomy
(c) vasectomy
(d) castration.
Answer:-(c) vasectomy
Question 14.
RCH stands for
(a) routine check-up of health
(b) reproduction cum hygiene
(c) reversible contraceptive hazards
(d) reproductive and child health care.
Answer:- (d) reproductive and child health care.
Question 15.
Amminocentesis is a technique used to
(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
(b) pin point specific cardiac ailments in embryo
(c) determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo
(d) all of these.
Answer:-(a) determine errors in amino acid metabolism in embryo
Question 16.
Which of the following cannot be detected in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
(a) Jaundice
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Cystic fibrosis
(d) Colourblindness
Answer:-(a) Jaundice
Question 17.
In which of the following weeks of pregnancy CVS is done ?
(a) 12th – 14th week
(b) 8th – 10th week
(c) 5th – 7th week
(d) None of these
Answer:-(b) 8th – 10th week
Question 19
Causes for increased population growth in india is/are
(a) increase in birth rate
(b) decrease in death rate
(c) lack of education
(d) all of these.
Answer:-(d) all of these.
Question 20.
Which of the following pairs contributes to an increase in population ?
(a) Natality and immigration
(b) Mortality and emigration
(c) Natality and emigration
(d) Mortality and immigration
Answer:-(a) Natality and immigration
Question 21.
Which of the following is correct regarding the consequences of lower population ?
(a) It increases the poverty of a country.
(b) It leads to shortage of food supply.
(c) It results in unemployment
(d) All of these
Answer:-(d) All of these
Question 23.
The best way to decrease population of a country is
(a) to educate people
(b) to have better houses
(c) to kill people on a large scale
(d) to practice and implement familay planning.
Answer:-(d) to practice and implement familay planning.
Question 24.
Which of the following correctly describes the measures
that can be used to control over-population ?
(a) Educating people about the advantages of a small family
(b) Raising the age of marriage
(c) Encouraging family planning programme
(d) All of these
Answer:- (d) All of these
Question 25.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of an ideal contraceptive ?
(a) User-friendly
(b) Irreversible
(c) Easily available
(d) Least side-effects
Answer:-(b) Irreversible
Question 27.
Which of the following is correct regarding HIV, hepatitis B, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis ?
(a) Trichomoniasis is an STD whereas others are not.
(b) Gonorrhoea is a viral disease whereas others are bacterial.
(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
(d) Hepatitis B is eradicated completely whereas others are not.
Answer:-(c) HIV is a pathogen whereas others are diseases.
Question 28
Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases caused by bacteria only ?
(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
(b) Syphilis, chlamydiasis, chancroid
(c) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, scabies
(d) Syphilis, scabies, pediculosis
Answer:-(a) Syphilis, gonorrhoea, chancroid
Question 29.
Confirmatory test for STDs is
(a) ELISA
(b) PCR
(c) DNA hybridisation
(d) all of these.
Answer:-(d) all of these.
Question 30
Hepatitis B is transmitted through
(a) blood transfusion
(b) intimate physical contact
(c) sexual contact
(d) all of these
Answer:-(d) all of these
Question 31.
The common means of transmission of AIDS is
(a) sexual intercourse
(b) blood transfusion
(c) placental transfer
(d) all of these.
Answer:-(d) all of these.
Question 32.
Which of the following STDs are not completely curable ?
(a) Chlamydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
(b) Chancroid syphilis, genital warts
(c) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis B
(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Answer:-(d) AIDS, genital herpes, hepatitis B
Question 33.
World AIDS day is
(a) December 21
(b) December 1
(c) November 1
(d) June 11
Answer:-(b) December 1
Question 34.
In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer of which one of the following into the fallopian tube ?
(a) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage
(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
(c) Embro of 32 cell stage
(d) Zygote only
Answer:-(b) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage
Question 35.
The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ?
(a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(b) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
(c) Gamete intra Fallopian transfer
(d) All of these
Answer:-(a) Zygote intra Fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
Question 36
The first case of IVF-ET technique success, was reported by
(a) Louis joy Brown and Banting Best
(b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards
(c) Robert Steptoe and Gilbert Brown
(d) Baylis and Starling Taylor.
Answer:-(b) Patrick Steptoe and Rebert Edwards
Question 37.
On which of the following facts does the method of periodic abstinence is based ?
(a) Ovulation occurs on about the 14th day of menstruation.
(b) Ovum remains alive for about 1-2 days.
(c) Sperms survive for about 3 days.
(d) All of these
Answer:-(d) All of these
Question 38.
Which of the following is a non-medicated intrauterine device (IUD) ?
(a) CuT
(b) Lippes Loop
(c) Cu7
(d) LNG-20
Answer:-(b) Lippes Loop
Question 39.
Multiload device contains
(a) manganese
(b) iron
(c) copper
(d) calcium
Answer:-(c) copper
Question 40.
Which of the following is not an intrauterine device ?
(a) Progestasert
(b) Multiload-375
(c) Norplant
(d) Lippes loop
Answer:-(c) Norplant
Question 41.
What is the work of copper-T ?
(a) To inhibit ovulation
(b) To inhibit fertilisation
(c) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst
(d) To inhibit gametogenesis
Answer:-(b) To inhibit fertilisation
Question 42
IUDs prevent pregnancy by
(a) inhibiting physiological and morphological uterine changes required for implantation.
(b) increasing phagocytosis of spermatozoa within uterus
(c) suppressing motility of sperms as well as their fertilising capacity
(d) all of these.
Answer:-(d) all of these.
Question 43.
Cu ions released from copper releasing intrauterine devices (IUDs)
(a) prevent ovulation
(b) make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(c) decrease phagocytosis of sperms
(d) suppress sperm motility.
Answer:-(d) suppress sperm motility.
Question 44.
The birth control device used by women is
(a) diaphragm
(b) vault
(c) copper T
(d) all of these.
Answer:-(d) all of these.
Question 45.
The most important component of oral contraceptive pills is
(a) progesterone-estrogen
(b) growth hormore
(c) thyroxine
(d) luteinising hormone.
Answer:-(a) progesterone-estrogen
Question 46.
Progesterone pill helps in preventing pregnancy by not allowing
(a) ova formation
(b) fertilisation
(c) implantation
(d) none of these.
Answer:-(a) ova formation
Question 47.
correct statement about “Saheli” term is?
(i) Developed at the CDRI, Lucknow
(ii) Contains a steroidal preparation
(iii) “Once-a-weak” pill
(iv) Many side effects
(v) High contraceptive value
(vi) Very few side effects value
(vii) Low contraceptive value
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (v), (vi)
(b) (i), (iii), (v), (vi), (vii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
Answer:-(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
Question 48
Which of the following birth control measures can be considered as the safest ?
(a) The rhythm method
(b) The use of physical barriers
(c) Termination of unwanted pregnancy
(d) Sterilisation techniques
Answer:-(d) Sterilisation techniques
Question 49.
Which of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India at present ?
(a) Cervical caps
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Diaphragms
(d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
Answer:-(d) IUDs (Intra uterine devices)
Question 50
Which of the following is a full proof method contraception ?
(a) Implantation
(b) Lactational amenorrhea
(c) Condoms
(d) Sterilisation
Answer:-(d) Sterilisation
Question 51.
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) ?
(a) These help in getting rid of unwanted pregnancies.
(b) These help in aborting the pregnancies which may be harmful to either mother of foetus or both.
(c) These contribute in decreasing the human population.
(d) None of these.
Answer:-(d) None of these.
Question 52.
Which of the following represents the correct match of a sexually transmitted disease with its pathogen ?
(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
(b) Gonorrhoea-Entamoeba histolytica
(c) Urethritis-Bacillus anthracis
(d) Softsore-Bacillus brevis
Answer:-(a) Syphilis-Treponema pallidum
Question 53.
The sexually transmitted disease, that can affect both the male and the female genitals and may damage the eyes of babies born of infected mothers is
(a) AIDS
(b) syphilis
(c) gonorrhoea
(d) hepatitis
Answer:-(c) gonorrhoea
Question 54.
A sexually transmitted disease symptomized by the development of chancre on the genitals is caused by the infection of
(a) Treponema pallidum
(b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(c) human immunodeficiency virus
(d) hepatitis B virus
Answer:-(a) Treponema pallidum
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